Posted by g_g_g_unit on May 20, 2009, at 22:29:57
In reply to Re: Please, quick explanation?, posted by desolationrower on May 20, 2009, at 18:42:13
> its not a partial agonist, its a low-affinity voltage-dependent uncompetitive nmda antagonist with fast-off kinetics. if you want a better explanation, look at this document:: http://www.isnvalladolid.org/pdfs/LiptonMemantineNRDD_SL.pdf
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> it has nice pictures and everything. memantine.com is an unusually useful site for a pharm manufactuerer. probably because its 'merz' some german company.
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> btw, nmda antaonism is probably how magnesium and zinc improve antidepressant response. they aren't as strong as memantine, but most people are deficient, and they help things like blood pressure too.
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> -d/ri don't think i called an agonist did i? anyway, i think i found out the answer to my question: low glutamate activity may just as likely be the result of downregulation - following chronic glutamate overactivity - as a phenomenon in and of itself. in which case the introduction of memantine would be useful, since by putting a cap on glutamate excess, it would allow the receptors to begin to upregulate, thus restoring normal glutamate activity.
d/r are you taking the drug at the moment? i've been taking it for 10 days, 3 days @ 10mg. so far, so mixed. main problem is the impact it's having on my short-term memory, which is in fact making my attention span worse, though i believe it shows its full benefits re: cognition only following chronic use at a therapeutic dose?
poster:g_g_g_unit
thread:895324
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/neuro/20090129/msgs/896916.html