Posted by Noa on January 2, 2001, at 11:18:11
In reply to Re: Scott- Lamotrigine's AD/dopaminergic action, posted by SLS on January 2, 2001, at 10:34:27
SLS, you are right--the term Bipolar III is being used to describe depressions with AD-induced hypomania. I just read this in the following abstract:
I could swear I remember reading a previous abstract of work by Akiskal in which he uses BPIII to refer to recurrent depression. Oh well.
I also thought I would mention, as I was reminded when perusing the abstracts, that one of the reasons why these researchers believe there is a diagnostic relationship between recurrent depression and bipolar is that for many people, recurrent depression takes the so called "atypical" form--with "reverse vegetative signs", like hypERsomnia, INcreased appetite, and also have some mood reactivity, whereas "typical" (to me "typical" vs. "atypical" are misnomers) depression, usually non-recurrent, is more often associated with vegetative signs like DEcreased appetite, INsomnia, etc. and very little reactivity (ie, can your depression loosen a bit to allow you to laugh at a joke, etc.).
So, it might also help to ask if your depression falls into either of these types.
And, I also want to say that sometimes mood stabilizers do have AD effect, on their own, or in combo with ADs, regardless of diagnosis.
Regardless of Diagnosis is a point I keep repeating, because I agree with SLS about focusing on the specific experience and treating symptoms or clusters of symtoms and not worrying too much about diagnosis. Every few years, the dx categories change a bit anyway.
poster:Noa
thread:50592
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20001231/msgs/50743.html