Posted by mikez on April 26, 2011, at 22:19:50
Hi, I recently did some research and found a discussion saying Buspar basically acts differently in the presence of an SSRI compared to alone. Something in regards to antagonizing the auto receptors when taken with an SSRI (which I want) vs doing the opposite when alone. Just wondering how much truth there is to this? Even if not, is it generally accepted that Buspar usually only works when taken as an adjunct (ie with SSRI).
Thanks so much for any insight.
poster:mikez
thread:983855
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/neuro/20100607/msgs/983855.html