Posted by neuroscience on October 25, 2012, at 13:35:55
I'm reading a book called Neurology for the Non-Neurologist (6th Edition), and on page 281 it talks about TD pathophysiology and says:
"Although choreiform movements may begin when the neuroleptic is chronically administered without a change in dose, the most common clinical setting in which the movement disorder emerges is after the dose is lowered or discontinued. This latter setting is in keeping with the postulate of lowering the pharmacologic blockade of the dopamine receptor and allowing normal dopaminergic mechanisms to resume their interaction with the already hypersensitized receptor. Although there is much evidence in animal models to support this notion, there have been inconsistencies."
My question is: what inconsistencies?
poster:neuroscience
thread:1029742
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20121018/msgs/1029742.html