Posted by Conundrum on December 1, 2010, at 11:29:59
Ok so both prozac and remeron increase motivation in me. Prozac is weaker, but it doesn't poop out. Remeron makes me way more motivated but poops out.
I'm curious as to why that is. My guess is that perhaps remeron blocks a lot of post synaptic receptors at first, maybe more than prozac but quickly upregulate. Prozac blocks 5 HT2A/C receptors but also indirectly agonizes them at the same time so maybe that prevents any upregulation? Also it indirectly agonizes the 5 HT1A receptor which may increase NE/DA release even more and perhaps, continuously in the PFC, where remeron cannot directly agonize that receptor, so maybe these two reasons, 1. Remeron is more likely to cause upregulation, and 2. it does not agonize strongly any 'good' serotonergic receptors.
Another thought was that perhaps one of these drugs is just an antagonist and the other an inverse agonist. Maybe prozac continues to work chronically because it is an inverse antagonist, or maybe remeron is the inverse antagonist and thats why it had some more"ooomph" to it when I started it.
This is purely and intellectual exercise, I'm just curious if this makes any sense.
Complaints: post-SSRI problems: anhedonia, memory and concentration problems, sexual dysfunction. )
Country:USA
Currently taking mirtazapine, tianeptine, and SAM-e
poster:Conundrum
thread:972072
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20101117/msgs/972072.html