Posted by undopaminergic on June 14, 2008, at 7:14:59
In reply to Re: Question nr. 2!, posted by linkadge on June 10, 2008, at 19:08:04
>
> Cocaine is not necessarily directly neurotoxic to serotonergic and dopaminergic neurons in the way that amphetamines are,
>Good, since that was my main point - at least until you expanded the scope of the discussion.
> but this does not imply it is not neurotoxic.
That's correct, and as I've noted, it's infeasible to prove that any substance lacks neurotoxic potential under all circumstances.
However, there is very little evidence to suggest that cocaine (or methylphenidate) has any significant neurotoxic potential, and much research that indicates a remarkable lack thereof. On the other hand, as I've previously explained, cocaine has other - more significant - properties that make it toxic in overdose - of particular relevance to this discussion is its cardiovascular effects, which may - among other things - cause cerebral ischaemia with consequent damage to neural tissues. Additionally, chronic cocaine administration can induce neurophysiological adaptions, which should not be confused with neurotoxicity.
The above is an attempt to summarise my current conclusions on this matter. You are of course entitled to take a different stance, and there is little for me to gain in trying to change it, whereas there is much time and effort to be lost in further argument. Therefore, this will be my final remark on this topic for this time.
poster:undopaminergic
thread:833007
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20080606/msgs/834563.html