Posted by fuchsia on October 28, 2006, at 6:52:05
In reply to Re: Anti-psychiatry theory of iatrogenesis, posted by clint878 on October 27, 2006, at 22:07:52
> Well, it is true that the person is bipolar, in this case. But would that person have become bipolar if not treated with an antidepressant? Some people [psycheducation.org] don't think so; in fact, they think irreversible harm is done.
>Take a functioning bipolar II, give them a few rounds of antidepressants and the illness takes off like wildfire. That's how it was with me anyhow. I really cannot believe that the course of my illness would have been this devastating if I hadn't had those treatments.
Given the _right_ treatment I might have benefitted rather than suffered. But what proportion of people get the right treatment to begin with?
poster:fuchsia
thread:698173
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20061028/msgs/698392.html