Posted by Squiggles on July 3, 2006, at 10:46:24
In reply to QUESTION..2 mgs. Ativan is equal to??, posted by Crazy Horse on July 3, 2006, at 10:23:03
> I have been told conflicting stories:
>
> 1) .50 Klonopin is equal to 2 mgs. of Ativan
>
> 2) .50 Klonopin is equal to 1 mg. of Ativan.
>
> Anybody know which one is the correct answer. Your help is very much apreciated. Thanks!
>
> MonteFrom benzo.org.uk:
also known as Lorazepam, the equivalence is
1-2Ativan : 0.5Klonopin
http://benzo.org.uk/ (Equivalence Table).
Squiggles
poster:Squiggles
thread:662997
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060701/msgs/663773.html