Posted by ricardo on February 8, 2003, at 7:23:08
Hi
I had asked this question before, but I thought I should write again as a new thread.
I was reading some facts about Tofranil (Imipramine), which I've just been put on, and I've found out that it's supposed to inhibit the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine in about the same proportion. Well, isn't it exactly what Effexor is supposed to do, too? In that case, why isn't Effexor considered a tricyclic AD? In what ways do these two drugs differ?
Thanks,
Ric
poster:ricardo
thread:140118
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030208/msgs/140118.html