Posted by Kari on September 2, 2002, at 15:22:07
Hi everyone,
Just wondering how one might explain the fact that Remeron has a sedating effect and has been considered for treatment of schizophrenia when it enhances noradrenergic activity as well as serotonergic. Never tried it, but what I have heard about this drug sounds contradictory.
Kari.
poster:Kari
thread:118561
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020829/msgs/118561.html