Posted by Zo on July 13, 2001, at 16:50:27
In reply to AD-provoked hypomania - is it diagnostic?, posted by Zo on July 9, 2001, at 14:39:44
And here I thought we had such a close relationship! LOL
It appears my pdoc has just *assumed* I've defined myself as BP II - and how did he describe his dx yesterday? "The way you come in here, like a whirlwind . . . it's *obvious!*"
I don't mean to make him sound glib; he's treated me for 10 years, and he and my therapist are colleagues. He is *very* astute. It's just been hard to tease out and medicate the strands of ADD, CFS-FM, TLE and Bipolar II, never mind the fact that I refuse to identify solely as *any* pathology or illness.
Thanks for a fabulous thread, everybody!
Zo
poster:Zo
thread:69495
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010708/msgs/70032.html