Posted by Elizabeth on July 11, 2001, at 16:15:37
In reply to Re: AD-provoked hypomania - is it diagnostic? » Elizabeth, posted by judy1 on July 11, 2001, at 10:37:56
> > We speculated about that. Finally we came to the conclusion that my depression is unipolar (in part, based on the fact that "mood stabilisers" have had no effect on me at all).
>
> Hmmm, I am dxed bipolar 1, (by several leading experts- it's one of those real no-brainer dx) and I have never responded to a mood stabilizer. Well maybe that came out wrong, when I am manic depakote and zyprexa are very effective in stopping the episode, but I haven't found any mood stabilizer (and I have been on every one- including experimental ones- and in combo) and NONE have prevented future episodes. So if you are referring to no response as far as preventing episodes, that makes me wonder- Take care, judyI'm not sure I completely understand your response. But as I said, the conclusion that I'm "unipolar" was based *in part* on the fact that mood stabilisers haven't been helpful for me. I've also never had a clear-cut manic, mixed, or hypomanic episode that wasn't associated with the "serotonin syndrome" (I also had a couple of not-so-clear-cut hypomanias that were med-related and might have been better described as agitation or jitters).
That's disappointing that you can't find a mood stabiliser that prevents future episodes. Are you saying that Depakote + Zyprexa stops an episode in its tracks, but you may have a future episode even if you continue on the same doses of these two meds?
-elizabeth
poster:Elizabeth
thread:69495
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010708/msgs/69758.html