Posted by sunny10 on April 6, 2005, at 11:58:10
is it possible to have gone through years of therapy without an underlying "specific" reason coming out?
I mean, if my memories are so buried that I can't get to them, is it possible I have answered their questions wrong and thus not actually received the correct therapy? Like the "have you ever experienced..." or "has anyone ever..". If I answered "no" or "I don't remember any of that", is it possible that the underlying cause (or nurture part of the equation)was never suspected, diagnosed, or treated?
Am I just being ridiculous in thinking this could have happened in my off and on years of therapy?
Any responses at all would be appreciated, thanks,
Sunny10
poster:sunny10
thread:480695
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20050329/msgs/480695.html