Posted by linkadge on January 20, 2006, at 11:50:12
In reply to Re: Which ADs increase DOPAMINE the most?, posted by shasling on January 20, 2006, at 11:09:45
I'm not trying to degrade your intuition. I too fared poorly on SSRI's.
For staters, abilify is a multaple monoaminergic agonist and antagonist. You've got some pretty potenet serotonin receptor 5-ht1a agonism with this drug. Serotonin 1a agonists are usually active in most lines of depression, but they are not dopaminergics per-se. You've also got some strong 5-ht2a receptor antagonism. Serotonin 2a antagonists can reduce stress' effect on BDNF.
So, in my oppinion, the combination of these two non-dopaminergic effects could account for a good majority of the antidepressant effects of this drug.Abilify is also a very strong dopamine antagonist, at certain receptors.
>I am disappointed that anyone who doesn't know >those of us who have identified dopamine as our >probable issue (and really who knows us better >than us?)Just because a drug works doesn't mean thats what the deficiancy was. Stimulants can improve a subset of depressions very rapidly, if only temporarily. But not everybody who has mood improvement on a stimulant was dopamine deficiant.
>would question and/or discount that. I mean, >we've all had enough of that from doctors and >family members, etc. and it is never helpful and >always degrading to be discounted in that way.
Its nice to fit things into boxes, but I just don't think the brain works that way. I would say the same thing to somebody with schitsophrenia. The dopamine theory of schitsophrenia is just one theory. Just because an antipsychotic works doesn't mean it is getting to the root of the problem. There are other theories of schitohprenia too.
>That was one thing I immediately noticed about >this site was that one's credibility about one's >own condition was assumed, and that was such a >gift. I am surprised and disappointed to find >that kind of thing here, which had previously >seemed like an unconditionally safe place where >my knowledge of me would not be discounted by >someone who 'knew' better.I am not trying to discount or discretit anyones condition by any means. All I am saying is that the most brilliant researchers on this earth have not yet been able to pinpoint what exactly dysfunctional in mood disorders. So while experience with a certain drug might be indicitive of something, it does not conclude anything.
The problem with dopaminergics is that they can activate the pleasure centeres of the brain directly. That prompt relief can lead people to make incorrect conclusions. To anyone with chronic pain, an opiate seems to fix a deficiancy in something, but we know it is not getting to the root of the problem by any means.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:599864
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060115/msgs/601074.html