Posted by B2chica on June 7, 2004, at 14:24:07
In reply to Is AD induced hypomania indicative of BP?, posted by nmk on June 7, 2004, at 12:28:43
if i remember right it's classified as Bp3 (drug induced mania). However, there are several symptoms that they look for so i'm guessing they're assessing the whole not just those reactions. However,
I am no physician, and this is only from what i've been reading. but i was dx Bp2 last fall and since then i've done a LOT of reading. In fact i remember reading that many Bp people are mis-dx as depressive instead of Bp..
Don't try to set him straight, just Please get second and third physician opinions! Never take one doctors word no matter what their decision is. i had one psychologist say i definately did not have bipolar and that the psychiatrist there would never dx me with that either. since him (who frustrated me completely) i've had 1Gp, 2PA's, and three psychiatrists and a hospital psych ward full of nurses witness and dx me with bipolar. So NEVER take just one persons word. get a few. and always trust your instinct. You know if somethings up with your mind or body.
Best Wishes.
B2c.
> My pdoc says no but from all of the research I have been gathering, I am reading otherwise. Can someone please set me (and him)straight?
>
> I have been on every ssri known to man, all of which send me into a hypomanic state almost immediately. This typically lasts a few weeks and then I come crashing down into a pretty severe depression. Is this typical of someone with BP II?
>
> Any help would be greatly appreciated.
>
> Thanks,
>
> Nicole
>
>
>
poster:B2chica
thread:354536
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040602/msgs/354559.html