Posted by SLS on January 18, 2004, at 14:10:22
In reply to Re: inverse agonist,- partial agonist ??, posted by linkadge on January 18, 2004, at 13:15:37
> So an inverse agonist would have similar functions to a antagonist. Ie they might have similar actions ?
>
> Linkadge
I'm having a difficult time explaining this. Certainly, an antagonist and an inverse agonist can produce similar outcomes. Both prevent the agonist from activating the receptor. However, the inverse agonist actually turns the receptor in the negative direction.
Another feeble analogy:An agonist shifts a car into gear and the car moves forward. An antagonist prevents the car from shifting and the car does not move. An inverse agonist shifts the car into reverse and the car moves backwards.
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:302265
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040118/msgs/302342.html