Posted by IsoM on April 5, 2002, at 15:33:38
In reply to How can 1/2 life be SAME for DIFF concentrations?, posted by Janelle on April 5, 2002, at 14:45:06
It's not simply the measurement of a drug but but how much is needed to work. If 500 mg of drug X has the proper effect then at 5-7 half-lives, what's left of it would have little effect on the body & not even be noticed.
On the other hand, if only 5 mg of drug Y is needed for effectiveness, then with just one half-life, concentration would be at 2.5 mg - much less than 15.625 mg of drug X (now at 5 half-lives) still it's not the amount left but how much is needed to cause an effect.
Think of the difference in how much salt as compared to sugar is needed in a cake to be good tasting as a comparison.
poster:IsoM
thread:101843
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020402/msgs/102012.html