Posted by JohnL on July 31, 2001, at 4:57:03
In reply to Q for JohnL: So...why's Prozac so different?, posted by pellmell on July 30, 2001, at 11:44:08
> You've said more than a few times recently that Prozac's way different from the other drugs in its class, and maybe shouldn't even be grouped with the rest of the SSRIs. I was wondering if you (or anyone else) could explain, in as much detail as you can (I think I've got a pretty good understanding of the current thinking in psychopharm for a layperson) why you think that. I'm curious, although I don't mean to imply that I disagree.
>
> Thanks, and I look forward to the discussion.
>
> -pmI have read about the intricate details of how the different SSRIs affect different receptors in the brain. I mean, they all raise serotonin levels, but there is other stuff going on. It's that other stuff that makes the difference. In that other stuff category, I have to admit to you I do not understand it. But I do know that it is quite different than what the other SSRIs do. In layman terms for example, while other SSRIs might dull or shut down certain receptors, Prozac stimulates them and opens them up. Technically speaking, this is far from accurate. But in layman terms, it goes something like that.
Usually when someone considers how Prozac is different than other SSRIs, they refer to its long half life. But that's not what I'm talking about, and may or may not be relevent to anything. At a molecular level, Prozac just does stuff that the others don't.
Hopefully someone else here with more technical expertise can jump in and explain it better.
John
poster:JohnL
thread:72515
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010731/msgs/72705.html