Posted by anita on January 25, 2000, at 0:51:32
In reply to Re: Buspar: dopamine agonist or antagonist? (Eliz?), posted by jd on January 23, 2000, at 23:52:58
Thanks --- this is what I thought, too. It's very confusing when you read a Medline abstract and it says something is an antagonist, but doesn't say whether it is at presynaptic or postsynaptic receptors. Also confusing is how ppl use the terms autoreceptor and presynaptic receptor interchangeably.
Ayiyi,
anita
> Anita,
> Here's perhaps a clue to reducing the confusion-- A dopamine antagonist can still end up increasing dopamine transmission if it specifically antagonizes the dopamine "feedback" receptors called autoreceptors. When these receptors are activated, they in effect tell your system that there's already "enough" dopamine. Antagonize them, and your system is fooled into releasing extra dopamine to compensate. It's a bit like blowing cold air on your thermostat to trick your heater into going on. Can't guarantee that this is an effect of Buspar, but it's a good bet if it's indeed an antagonist (as I believe it to be).
> --jd
>
>
poster:anita
thread:19073
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20000112/msgs/19596.html